"There are difference in [average] intelligence between the different ethnicities."
Complete nonsense of course. But you made the claim so it's your responsibility to prove it - not mine to disprove it.
"According to you forensic anthropologists shouldn't be scientifically possible, yet it is."
Forensic anthropology is the study of bone and tissue of deceased persons - it has nothing to do with a person or groups of persons propensity to commit crimes at all of course. We where talking about your claim that ethnicity correlates to a persons propensity to commit crime and there is absolutely no scientific evidence to prove that.
That's old racist theories your spouting there - modern science doesn't support any connection between ethnicity and propensity for crime or violence or anything else once claimed by racist theory.
So again - if you want to back your claim up, you've got to prove it with reputable sources.
"Yet, if you're a place where there are 50% Swedish men, and 50% non-western immigrants, the probability in Sweden that a perpetrator is from the 50% non-western immigrant pool, is WAY, WAY higher then them being from the 50% Swedish pool, that's why they should be profiled, because it helps solve crime, it is efficient, faster, and save tax-payers money. How do you know understand this extremely simple statistics exercise?"
Also complete nonsense as I told you.
Crime differ among social classes as I said - poor people are obviously not committing insider trading at the same rates as rich people, because poor people are seldom trading on the stock market, for instance.
On the other hand we do know that poor people commit more of and other types of crime, so it differs between social class.
And you probably actually realize this as well, if you just stopped to think for a moment.
If the groups of Swedes in your example are poor with a low education level and the immigrants are rich and highly educated - do you think the likelihood of the immigrants committing a random crime would still be "WAY, WAY higher"? No, I don't actually think you would - now would you?
Because I think you actually do realize there is a difference in criminality within our own societies as well (both Sweden and Norway) and that there actually is social differences between which groups in society commit more of and which types of crime.
So blankedly stating like you do that only based on ethnicity the likelihood of two groups of men committing a certain crime is "WAY, WAY higher" in the "non-western immigrant pool" is complete and utter nonsense. It's simply not true AT ALL!
But as before - since you made the claim it's your responsibility to prove it with reputable sources.
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@Rudde
"There are difference in [average] intelligence between the different ethnicities."
Complete nonsense of course. But you made the claim so it's your responsibility to prove it - not mine to disprove it.
"According to you forensic anthropologists shouldn't be scientifically possible, yet it is."
Forensic anthropology is the study of bone and tissue of deceased persons - it has nothing to do with a person or groups of persons propensity to commit crimes at all of course. We where talking about your claim that ethnicity correlates to a persons propensity to commit crime and there is absolutely no scientific evidence to prove that.
That's old racist theories your spouting there - modern science doesn't support any connection between ethnicity and propensity for crime or violence or anything else once claimed by racist theory.
So again - if you want to back your claim up, you've got to prove it with reputable sources.
"Yet, if you're a place where there are 50% Swedish men, and 50% non-western immigrants, the probability in Sweden that a perpetrator is from the 50% non-western immigrant pool, is WAY, WAY higher then them being from the 50% Swedish pool, that's why they should be profiled, because it helps solve crime, it is efficient, faster, and save tax-payers money. How do you know understand this extremely simple statistics exercise?"
Also complete nonsense as I told you.
Crime differ among social classes as I said - poor people are obviously not committing insider trading at the same rates as rich people, because poor people are seldom trading on the stock market, for instance.
On the other hand we do know that poor people commit more of and other types of crime, so it differs between social class.
And you probably actually realize this as well, if you just stopped to think for a moment.
If the groups of Swedes in your example are poor with a low education level and the immigrants are rich and highly educated - do you think the likelihood of the immigrants committing a random crime would still be "WAY, WAY higher"? No, I don't actually think you would - now would you?
Because I think you actually do realize there is a difference in criminality within our own societies as well (both Sweden and Norway) and that there actually is social differences between which groups in society commit more of and which types of crime.
So blankedly stating like you do that only based on ethnicity the likelihood of two groups of men committing a certain crime is "WAY, WAY higher" in the "non-western immigrant pool" is complete and utter nonsense. It's simply not true AT ALL!
But as before - since you made the claim it's your responsibility to prove it with reputable sources.