@sagas
Not quite.
The classical understanding is that the Uralic language family developed to the north of where indo-european developed. So, Uralic is nowhere to the east. It is to the north, especially when concerning indo-europeans. Before that there was indo-uralic language subgroup.
One could say that contemporary Uralic is Uralic 2, which superseded the older Uralic 1. Indo-european would in that respect be Uralic 3. So, both indo-european and Uralic 2 developed from the mix of Uralic 1 and old caucasian (kartvelian, ossetian, etc.) languages. Thus, genetically and linguistically speaking, at least Uralic 2 has continuity with Uralic 1.
0
@sagas
Not quite.
The classical understanding is that the Uralic language family developed to the north of where indo-european developed. So, Uralic is nowhere to the east. It is to the north, especially when concerning indo-europeans. Before that there was indo-uralic language subgroup.
One could say that contemporary Uralic is Uralic 2, which superseded the older Uralic 1. Indo-european would in that respect be Uralic 3. So, both indo-european and Uralic 2 developed from the mix of Uralic 1 and old caucasian (kartvelian, ossetian, etc.) languages. Thus, genetically and linguistically speaking, at least Uralic 2 has continuity with Uralic 1.