I don't particularly care to parse "mostly due to America" versus "much of the abuse wasn't done by Denmark, but rather by the US", which is the direct quote. OP was clearly trying to lay alcohol use in Greenland at American feet, and it is ridiculous.
OP posits that American alcohol started in World War II and ended afterwards, so in absence of specific dates, shall we estimate 1939 to 1945? 6 years of alcohol and tobacco with the rest of the supplies, and one suspects probably not even that much as these were wartime rations. In the history of a country that had been around for hundreds of years, those 6 years of American alcohol accounts for all the alcohol use in the future?
Instead, the explosion in alcohol use was in the 1980s, after Denmark had been in control for about 40 years. The link below demonstrates that. Figure 1.
Further, the introduction of rationing -- as you noted, in 1929 -- suggests that it was not rationed just prior to that. At some time between 1782 and 1929, we can surmise that alcohol was not rationed. Why does that period not get any blame?
Give it up, man. You just don't have a leg to stand on here. American influence can be blamed for a lot of things around the world, but not this particular one.
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'@Nisse'_Hult
I don't particularly care to parse "mostly due to America" versus "much of the abuse wasn't done by Denmark, but rather by the US", which is the direct quote. OP was clearly trying to lay alcohol use in Greenland at American feet, and it is ridiculous.
OP posits that American alcohol started in World War II and ended afterwards, so in absence of specific dates, shall we estimate 1939 to 1945? 6 years of alcohol and tobacco with the rest of the supplies, and one suspects probably not even that much as these were wartime rations. In the history of a country that had been around for hundreds of years, those 6 years of American alcohol accounts for all the alcohol use in the future?
Instead, the explosion in alcohol use was in the 1980s, after Denmark had been in control for about 40 years. The link below demonstrates that. Figure 1.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3525923/
Further, the introduction of rationing -- as you noted, in 1929 -- suggests that it was not rationed just prior to that. At some time between 1782 and 1929, we can surmise that alcohol was not rationed. Why does that period not get any blame?
Give it up, man. You just don't have a leg to stand on here. American influence can be blamed for a lot of things around the world, but not this particular one.